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Yohanes 1:26

Konteks

1:26 John answered them, 1  “I baptize with water. Among you stands one whom you do not recognize, 2 

Yohanes 6:70

Konteks
6:70 Jesus replied, 3  “Didn’t I choose you, the twelve, and yet one of you is the devil?” 4 

Yohanes 7:19

Konteks
7:19 Hasn’t Moses given you the law? Yet not one of you keeps 5  the law! Why do you want 6  to kill me?”

Yohanes 8:7

Konteks
8:7 When they persisted in asking him, he stood up straight 7  and replied, 8  “Whoever among you is guiltless 9  may be the first to throw a stone at her.”

Yohanes 8:41

Konteks
8:41 You people 10  are doing the deeds of your father.”

Then 11  they said to Jesus, 12  “We were not born as a result of immorality! 13  We have only one Father, God himself.”

Yohanes 9:19

Konteks
9:19 They asked the parents, 14  “Is this your son, whom you say 15  was born blind? Then how does he now see?”

Yohanes 9:41

Konteks
9:41 Jesus replied, 16  “If you were blind, you would not be guilty of sin, 17  but now because you claim that you can see, 18  your guilt 19  remains.” 20 

Yohanes 10:34

Konteks

10:34 Jesus answered, 21  “Is it not written in your law, ‘I said, you are gods’? 22 

Yohanes 13:14

Konteks
13:14 If I then, your Lord and Teacher, have washed your feet, you too ought to wash one another’s feet.

Yohanes 13:21

Konteks

13:21 When he had said these things, Jesus was greatly distressed 23  in spirit, and testified, 24  “I tell you the solemn truth, 25  one of you will betray me.” 26 

Yohanes 14:30

Konteks
14:30 I will not speak with you much longer, 27  for the ruler of this world is coming. 28  He has no power over me, 29 

Yohanes 16:24

Konteks
16:24 Until now you have not asked for anything in my name. Ask and you will receive it, 30  so that your joy may be complete.

Yohanes 16:26

Konteks
16:26 At that time 31  you will ask in my name, and I do not say 32  that I will ask the Father on your behalf.

Yohanes 19:14

Konteks
19:14 (Now it was the day of preparation 33  for the Passover, about noon. 34 ) 35  Pilate 36  said to the Jewish leaders, 37  “Look, here is your king!”

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[1:26]  1 tn Grk “answered them, saying.” The participle λέγων (legwn) is redundant in contemporary English and has not been translated.

[1:26]  2 tn Or “know.”

[6:70]  3 tn Grk “Jesus answered them.”

[6:70]  4 tn Although most translations render this last phrase as “one of you is a devil,” such a translation presupposes that there is more than one devil. This finds roots in the KJV in which the Greek word for demon was often translated “devil.” In fact, the KJV never uses the word “demon.” (Sixty-two of the 63 NT instances of δαιμόνιον [daimonion] are translated “devil” [in Acts 17:18 the plural has been translated “gods”]. This can get confusing in places where the singular “devil” is used: Is Satan or one of the demons in view [cf. Matt 9:33 (demon); 13:39 (devil); 17:18 (demon); Mark 7:26 (demon); Luke 4:2 (devil); etc.]?) Now regarding John 6:70, both the construction in Greek and the technical use of διάβολος (diabolos) indicate that the one devil is in view. To object to the translation “the devil” because it thus equates Judas with Satan does not take into consideration that Jesus often spoke figuratively (e.g., “destroy this temple” [John 2:19]; “he [John the Baptist] is Elijah” [Matt 11:14]), even equating Peter with the devil on one occasion (Mark 8:33). According to ExSyn 249, “A curious phenomenon has occurred in the English Bible with reference to one particular monadic noun, διάβολος. The KJV translates both διάβολος and δαιμόνιον as ‘devil.’ Thus in the AV translators’ minds, ‘devil’ was not a monadic noun. Modern translations have correctly rendered δαιμόνιον as ‘demon’ and have, for the most part, recognized that διάβολος is monadic (cf., e.g., 1 Pet 5:8; Rev 20:2). But in John 6:70 modern translations have fallen into the error of the King James translators. The KJV has ‘one of you is a devil.’ So does the RSV, NRSV, ASV, NIV, NKJV, and the JB [Jerusalem Bible]. Yet there is only one devil…The legacy of the KJV still lives on, then, even in places where it ought not.”

[7:19]  5 tn Or “accomplishes”; Grk “does.”

[7:19]  6 tn Grk “seek.”

[8:7]  7 tn Or “he straightened up.”

[8:7]  8 tn Grk “and said to them.”

[8:7]  9 tn Or “sinless.”

[8:41]  10 tn The word “people” is not in the Greek text, but is supplied in English to clarify the plural Greek pronoun and verb.

[8:41]  11 tc ‡ Important and early witnesses (א B L W 070 it sys,p co) lack the conjunction here, while the earliest witnesses along with many others read οὖν (oun, “therefore”; Ì66,75 C D Θ Ψ 0250 Ë13 33 Ï). This conjunction occurs in John some 200 times, far more than in any other NT book. Even though the combined testimony of two early papyri for the conjunction is impressive, the reading seems to be a predictable scribal emendation. In particular, οὖν is frequently used with the plural of εἶπον (eipon, “they said”) in John (in this chapter alone, note vv. 13, 39, 48, 57, and possibly 52). On balance, it is probably best to consider the shorter reading as authentic, even though “Then” is virtually required in translation for English stylistic reasons. NA27 has the conjunction in brackets, indicating some doubt as to its authenticity.

[8:41]  12 tn Grk “him”; the referent (Jesus) is specified in the translation for clarity.

[8:41]  13 sn We were not born as a result of immorality! is ironic, because Jesus’ opponents implied that it was not themselves but Jesus who had been born as a result of immoral behavior. This shows they did not know Jesus’ true origin and were not aware of the supernatural events surrounding his birth. The author does not even bother to refute the opponents’ suggestion but lets it stand, assuming his readers will know the true story.

[9:19]  14 tn Grk “and they asked them, saying”; the referent (the parents) has been specified in the translation for clarity.

[9:19]  15 tn The Greek pronoun and verb are both plural (both parents are addressed).

[9:41]  16 tn Grk “Jesus said to them.”

[9:41]  17 tn Grk “you would not have sin.”

[9:41]  18 tn Grk “now because you say, ‘We see…’”

[9:41]  19 tn Or “your sin.”

[9:41]  20 sn Because you claim that you can see, your guilt remains. The blind man received sight physically, and this led him to see spiritually as well. But the Pharisees, who claimed to possess spiritual sight, were spiritually blinded. The reader might recall Jesus’ words to Nicodemus in 3:10, “Are you the teacher of Israel and don’t understand these things?” In other words, to receive Jesus was to receive the light of the world, to reject him was to reject the light, close one’s eyes, and become blind. This is the serious sin of which Jesus had warned before (8:21-24). The blindness of such people was incurable since they had rejected the only cure that exists (cf. 12:39-41).

[10:34]  21 tn Grk “answered them.”

[10:34]  22 sn A quotation from Ps 82:6. Technically the Psalms are not part of the OT “law” (which usually referred to the five books of Moses), but occasionally the term “law” was applied to the entire OT, as here. The problem in this verse concerns the meaning of Jesus’ quotation from Ps 82:6. It is important to look at the OT context: The whole line reads “I say, you are gods, sons of the Most High, all of you.” Jesus will pick up on the term “sons of the Most High” in 10:36, where he refers to himself as the Son of God. The psalm was understood in rabbinic circles as an attack on unjust judges who, though they have been given the title “gods” because of their quasi-divine function of exercising judgment, are just as mortal as other men. What is the argument here? It is often thought to be as follows: If it was an OT practice to refer to men like the judges as gods, and not blasphemy, why did the Jewish authorities object when this term was applied to Jesus? This really doesn’t seem to fit the context, however, since if that were the case Jesus would not be making any claim for “divinity” for himself over and above any other human being – and therefore he would not be subject to the charge of blasphemy. Rather, this is evidently a case of arguing from the lesser to the greater, a common form of rabbinic argument. The reason the OT judges could be called gods is because they were vehicles of the word of God (cf. 10:35). But granting that premise, Jesus deserves much more than they to be called God. He is the Word incarnate, whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world to save the world (10:36). In light of the prologue to the Gospel of John, it seems this interpretation would have been most natural for the author. If it is permissible to call men “gods” because they were the vehicles of the word of God, how much more permissible is it to use the word “God” of him who is the Word of God?

[13:21]  23 tn Or “greatly troubled.”

[13:21]  24 tn Grk “and testified and said.”

[13:21]  25 tn Grk “Truly, truly, I say to you.”

[13:21]  26 tn Or “will hand me over.”

[14:30]  27 tn Grk “I will no longer speak many things with you.”

[14:30]  28 sn The ruler of this world is a reference to Satan.

[14:30]  29 tn Grk “in me he has nothing.”

[16:24]  30 tn The word “it” is not in the Greek text, but is implied. Direct objects were often omitted in Greek when clear from the context.

[16:26]  31 tn Grk “In that day.”

[16:26]  32 tn Grk “I do not say to you.”

[19:14]  33 sn The term day of preparation (παρασκευή, paraskeuh) appears in all the gospels as a description of the day on which Jesus died. It could refer to any Friday as the day of preparation for the Sabbath (Saturday), and this is the way the synoptic gospels use the term (Matt 27:62, Mark 15:42, and Luke 23:54). John, however, specifies in addition that this was not only the day of preparation of the Sabbath, but also the day of preparation of the Passover, so that the Sabbath on the following day was the Passover (cf. 19:31).

[19:14]  34 tn Grk “about the sixth hour.”

[19:14]  sn For John, the time was especially important. When the note concerning the hour, about noon, is connected with the day, the day of preparation for the Passover, it becomes apparent that Jesus was going to die on the cross at the very time that the Passover lambs were being slain in the temple courts. Exod 12:6 required that the Passover lamb be kept alive until the 14th Nisan, the eve of the Passover, and then slaughtered by the head of the household at twilight (Grk “between the two evenings”). By this time the slaughtering was no longer done by the heads of households, but by the priests in the temple courts. But so many lambs were needed for the tens of thousands of pilgrims who came to Jerusalem to celebrate the feast (some estimates run in excess of 100,000 pilgrims) that the slaughter could not be completed during the evening, and so the rabbis redefined “between the two evenings” as beginning at noon, when the sun began to decline toward the horizon. Thus the priests had the entire afternoon of 14th Nisan in which to complete the slaughter of the Passover lambs. According to the Fourth Gospel, this is the time Jesus was dying on the cross.

[19:14]  35 sn This is a parenthetical note by the author.

[19:14]  36 tn Grk “And he”; the referent (Pilate) has been specified in the translation for clarity, and the conjunction καί (kai, “and”) has not been translated here in keeping with the tendency of contemporary English style to use shorter sentences.

[19:14]  37 tn Or “the Jewish authorities”; Grk “the Jews.” Here the phrase refers to the Jewish leaders, especially members of the Sanhedrin, and their servants (mentioned specifically as “the chief priests and their servants” in John 19:6). See the note on the phrase “Jewish leaders” in v. 7.



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